I have CIM integrated with some ordering software that my company provides and we have been getting complaints about the following situation from our clients.
Example:
1. User has $100.00 available on card.
2. User purchases order for $75.00.
3. The software will authorize $75.00 of the customer's card.
4. User calls up and wants to modify order, adds a $10 item.
5. The software voids the previous authorization and then tries to authorize $85.00. It fails because the void transaction did not free up the funds so the transaction is declined. We tried to hold $160.00 of the customer's funds.
Has anyone ran into this situation before and came up with a good solution? I would love to hear some ideas.
Thanks!
โ11-18-2009 06:28 AM
It's not really possible to do much with this because of how credit card processing works. The credit card issuers will approve that first transaction and remember that that amount is probably going to be spent so they set it aside. They don't know for sure that amount will be requested since the transaction hasn't been batched and become official. They also don't know about the void for the same reason. So when that second transaction comes through it just appears as yet another transaction whose funds need to be set aside. It's one of the pit falls of how credit card processing works.
โ11-18-2009 10:01 AM
Hi Sir ,
There are two scenerios
1) As per our requirement ,First I need to authorize 100 usd after that capture 90 usd and after that void 10 usd .
Is this possible or not?
2) First we authorize 200 usd and after that we void the authorized transaction then we capture 100 usd.
Please let me know
Regards Manish
โ04-10-2013 01:34 PM
You don't need to post your question to 3 different thread.
โ04-10-2013 01:40 PM