I assume there's no problem with this, but I just want to make sure. My parents' business has an Authorize.net account set up (including Cybersource merchant account, I believe) as of some months ago. We never got around to actually integrating it. Now my brother is about to start selling software through his site. Rather than wait for a new account approval, which could take some time, I would like to use my parents' account to charge credit cards in the interim. Is there any rule against doing this? It would only be for a few weeks at most. The object is to get more experience with customers using DPM prior to my parents starting to sell their magazine through the account, as well as to eliminate the wait time for my brother.
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โ10-28-2012 06:04 PM
I called Authorize.net support, they said it was a merchant-specific thing. I called Cybersource, they said that -technically- it's a violation, since they have to report on income to the IRS and so on, but they don't actually look at where the transactions are coming from or why, so as long as we're accounting for everything properly on the back end I guess we're good to go.
โ10-29-2012 12:52 PM
I called Authorize.net support, they said it was a merchant-specific thing. I called Cybersource, they said that -technically- it's a violation, since they have to report on income to the IRS and so on, but they don't actually look at where the transactions are coming from or why, so as long as we're accounting for everything properly on the back end I guess we're good to go.
โ10-29-2012 12:52 PM
โ10-29-2012 09:31 PM - edited โ10-29-2012 09:34 PM