Split Capture Possible

[pmarc]

I've implemented about 6 different credit card processing gateway's.  I started implementing Authorize.Net about 2 weeks ago.  The implementation does an AUTH_ONLY, then later issues a PRIOR_AUTH_CAPTURE.   The business model for my client will in some cases fulfill part of the order and then fulfill the rest of the order at a later date (a classic split shipment).  

However, when reading the docs for a PRIOR_AUTH_CAPTURE it states the following:  

Only a single Prior Authorization and Capture transaction can be submitted against an Authorization Only.

Does this mean that Authorize.Net simply cannot handle a split authorize and capture??  This is standard practice in order fulfillment and other gateway's allow this.  I would find it hard to believe that Authorize.Net can't handle this?? 

I searched the forums, but I haven't been able to find anything.  Am I missing something?

[Elaine]

When you process Auth Only transactions you may only process one Prior Auth Capture transaction against each Auth Only transaction, even if you do not capture the full amount with your Prior Auth Capture. If there is an available amount remaining in the Auth Only authorization after your Prior Auth Capture you may use the Capture Only transaction type to capture the remaining balance, however this requires that you have the full credit card number and expiration date on file in order to submit the Capture Only. For this reason, you may prefer to use CIM as you can store your customer's payment information in a CIM profile for use at a later date, including Auth Only, Prior Auth Capture and Capture Only transctions.

Thanks,

Elaine

[joatmon]

You can also "rebill" the second part of the order. Rebilling creates a new authorization, but you do not need the customers card number.

[mcdiarcr]

i have a related question.

I am using SIM and I need to split the capture into auth_only and then prior_auth_capture. I've attempted this on the test account and the status of the transaction remains as "Authorizied/Pending Capture" after I have sent the capture transaction and received a successful response from the payment gateway.

So, I started reading and came across this in the SIM documentation: "

If this transaction type is required, it is recommended that the merchant process the transactions by logging on to the merchant interface directly, or by using a desktop application that uses AIM."

That statement is worrisome since it is awfully late in the development process to scrap everything and use AIM. Please tell me that I CAN use auth_only then prior_auth_capture in SIM.

And then, please explain why the transaction status didn't change on the Test Merchant Interface.

Thanks,

Cheryl M.

[Sreejith_5]

I am also stuck on the same. do i need to build a new flow with all AIM to replace what i did in SIM. 

 please help

[RaynorC1emen7]

You can use SIM for authorize_and_capture, authorize_only, then use AIM for the rest.

The point of using SIM was that you don't need SSL while AIM you will need it for Credit Card entry.

[Sreejith_5]

thanks,

I am new to web can u specify will there be any need of changes with SSL category to implement in the system to convert my application from SIM to AIM.

Sreejith_5

[RaynorC1emen7]

http://developer.authorize.net/api/compare/

SIM, no SSL required

DPM, SSL recommend

AIM, SSL required

[Sreejith_5]

ok thanks,, i implemented it in function. Now i need to transfer my response towards another URL and display the result there so whether

x_relay_response = TRUE

x_relay_url = {url to script on our site}

is possible or not. And i wnt to know how to set up a filed x_relay_url in AIM as it is not present in it..

help from all accepted

[RaynorC1emen7]

No. for AIM you call authorize.net from you backend server. So there is no need for relay response. If you need to transfer it to another URL just do it as you would normally would.

There a diagram of how AIM works.

http://developer.authorize.net/api/aim/