Getting charged for AUTH_ONLY transaction?

[jtoth]

I'm trying to write code to validate that a credit card is valid, but the credit card shouldn't be charged for doing this check. In the code I have the x_type set to AUTH_ONLY and the x_amount set to .01. Even though I have an amount set, why is it charging the card if the type is set to AUTH_ONLY? Can I just change the amount to 0 to get around this or is there a better way to ensure that it's just doing a check and not going to charge the card?

One other question I had was that this AUTH_ONLY type is supposed to validate the entire billing address, credit card number, and expiration date, yet it doesn't do that. I tested it and it only is validating my credit card number, if I put in a bogus billing address or expiration date it still returns back that it's valid.

Thanks for any help on these two issues!

Justin

[stymiee · Accepted solution]

Are you using the development server? Or production server?

If you are performing an AUTH_ONLY the card should never be charged. However, the amount you authorized will be frozen until you either reverse it or it expires which typically happens 30 days later. In fact, there are no guidelines about performing $0 and $0.001 authorizations which need to be followed). If you see the card being charged the amount you authorized then you have an error in your coding and are not properly requesting Auth onlys.

If you are using the development server your transactions are not being actually processed. It just validates the data to make sure it is in the proper format. In the case of $0 Auth onlys, all they do is verify that the credit card is valid and allows AVS and CVV to be performed. That's it. And even if the address and CVV are incorrect as long as the card is valid the transaction will be approved. AVS and CVV do not force declines unless you set your control panel to do so. Also, expiration dates are not always honored by the credit card issuers. If the credit card number is correct and the card hasn't expired banks will allow the transaction to go through. 

[sfornsadeep]

I've had the same issue. I really belive my code is correct since I tried my code from live and test server and am getting a perfect response from Authorize. But when I tried AIM with AUTH_ONLY in using test server or live server am immediately getting mail from Authorize as a bill for the transaction. if that is not charged how come they send the bill or invoice. Requesting your kind attention.

Also as you mentioned how can I reverse the frozen amount.

Thanks in advance

Sandeep Thomas

[RaynorC1emen7]

The email is send on authorize. If you don't want it, you will have to send email yourselves.

Auth_only is not charge, it a credit hold on the credit card.

To reverse a auth_only, do a void transaction.

[sfornsadeep]

So that mail doesnt mean its charged the amount for transaction, isnt it? But thats clearly mentioned the amount and all. Thats why i've got confused.

[RaynorC1emen7]

So that mail doesnt mean its charged the amount for transaction, isnt it?

It just an email. You can check the transaction on the merchant account to see if it capture or not.