Partial payment with Authorization and Capture method - clarifications

[sameera]

Hi,

I'm currently adding partial payment support for our AIM integration. We were using Authorization and Capture method. I thought clarifying following assumptions before being put in production since the Authorization and Capture sends the  payment to settlement immediately. 

1. I assumed Authorization and Capture method also returns split_tender_id if the amount it could charege is partial.
2. When using this method also the amount charged will remain authorized only until we submit the prior auth capture call.
3. If we don't submit the prior auth capture the authorized amount will be released after 30 days. 

Are these assumptions accurate? 

Thanks in advance.

Sameera

[RaynorC1emen7]

1)Yes

2)No, the last Authorization and Capture transaction that cover the full amount will capture the transaction.

3)only if you are doing auth_only.

[sameera]

Thank you for the reply.  There are further clarifications on the same area if you could help me out with.

The context is that I'm going to continue using Authorize and Capture when partial payments are enabled. But most the time the amount can be charged in full.

When you consider a scenario the card is fully charged in the first submit;

A) I assume based on the answer to above assumption 2 that even when partial payments are enabled the Authorize and Capture in fact captures the amount and I dont have to send another call.

Consider the Authorize and Capture could only authorize (?) a partial amount and there was no card submitted for the rest;

B) The amount authorized upto now remains authorized only unless a card is submitted for the rest of the amount or prior auth capture is called. 

Are the assumptions A and B are correct in the given scenarios?

Thank you.

[RaynorC1emen7 · Accepted solution]

a)Both example with partial turn on.

example 1)one cc have enough for the auth_capture amount, run just like before.

example 2)one cc only enough for half, and the 2nd CC cover the rest, the 1st auth_capture will be more like a auth_only as it will be on hold, by not charge, the 2nd auth_capture will finish auth and capture both credit card.

if you don't send the 2nd auth_capture, you would have to use the prior auth capture to just capture the 1st CC. (with just the half amount)

A)correct, as soon as it get the total amount it would do the capture.

B)yes, the 1st CC would act like a auth_only.